Emergency Medicine Exam 1 Practice

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• The smaller the suture, the _____ throws needed to form a secure knot.
• Bone metastases typically originate from which primary sites?
• IVIG is derived from which source?
• Eyelid wounds should be referred if they involve which structures?
• In adults and children over 1 year, which pulse site is checked first when assessing circulation?
• What type of burn is described by red, painful skin with no blistering, involving only the epidermis?
• Which benzodiazepine is associated with amnesia and has an onset of 3-5 minutes, declining over 30-40 minutes?
• What is the imaging modality of choice for epididymitis?
• Dysbarism occurs due to pressure changes during which activities?
• Which labs and diagnostics should be ordered for thermal injuries?
• What is the purpose of using pressure monitoring devices in cardiogenic shock?
• Where do nonopioid analgesics primarily exert their effect compared with opioids?
• Should ice be applied to burns?
• Which insect bite causes intense pruritus with burrows concentrated on web spaces, fingers, and toes?
• Which option is NOT a red flag for cancer in back pain?
• Acetaminophen is considered safe for children older than how many weeks?
• Hypothermia is defined as a body temperature less than what value?
• Which insect bite causes immediate pain and paresthesia with a positive tap test, and what is the treatment?
• Initial management of electrical injuries includes which of the following?
• Which feature is typical of epididymitis?
• Which statement best describes the overall clinical utility of the straight leg raise test?
• In myxedema, what is the expected pattern of T3, T4, and TSH?
• Which items constitute a procedure note?
• What is the general local reaction to bites and stings?
• What is the study of choice for evaluating renal failure?
• Which finding is most consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which of the following is an initial step in treating an insect sting reaction?
• What is the treatment for post-renal renal failure?
• A patient with sudden severe flank pain radiating to the groin most likely has which condition?
• Which therapy is considered definitive for decompression sickness?
• Balanoposthitis is most commonly found in which population?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps of evaluating a wound?
• Painful cramps in heavily exercised skeletal muscle are characteristic of which heat-related condition?
• Cardiac output is calculated as which of the following?
• In medical terminology, infection of the urethra is called what?
• Which finding is most consistent with testicular torsion?
• Anaphylactic shock is best defined as which?
• Which burn type increases risk of death and is important to evaluate for?
• Back pain with point tenderness to percussion should raise concern for which diagnosis?
• Which federal law requires that anyone arriving at an emergency department be stabilized and treated regardless of insurance status or ability to pay?
• Which of the following is part of the initial management of anaphylactic shock?
• What is the primary goal of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?
• Which assessment is part of the work-up for lightning injuries?
• In hypoglycemia due to long-acting sulfonylureas, what may be needed after initial dextrose therapy?
• Which laboratory pattern is typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Survival following asphyxia due to submerging.
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the whole head represent?
• Which statement best summarizes the diagnostic utility of the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• Midazolam is marketed under which brand name?
• Under what condition is primary closure of a cat bite wound considered?
• To anesthetize the green area near the medial eyebrow, which nerve should be targeted?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most often triggered by which category of conditions?
• What is the general approach to anemia treatment when transfusion is planned?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is best described as which of the following?
• In suspected renal failure due to a vascular cause, which imaging feature helps assess perfusion?
• What is the ketone status typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Neurogenic shock results from disruption of sympathetic outflow leading to unopposed parasympathetic activity. Which statement best describes this mechanism?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis pale white/yellow, with no cap refill and absent pain sensation in deeper areas?
• Ejection fraction is defined as which ratio?
• Which product is commonly used to replace multiple coagulation factors in bleeding due to liver disease?
• Back pain with fever should raise suspicion for which etiology?
• Which description corresponds to 3rd-degree frostbite?
• What is the essential initial treatment component for heat emergencies?
• For a laceration containing a foreign body, which closure approach is preferred?
• HUS is often preceded by which event?
• What is the most common cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• What is the standard treatment for DKA?
• What is the reversal agent for opioids?
• What should be done in the ED for paraphimosis?
• Which medication from the thyroid storm management group is an antithyroid drug?
• Which opioid does not release histamine?
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• Which nerve is indicated by sensation testing at the first dorsal web space of the hand?
• Neurogenic shock is defined as shock that occurs after injury to the spinal cord with disruption of sympathetic outflow, resulting in unopposed vagal tone. What is the name of this condition?
• Exposure to gas heat, smoke inhalation, acidosis or coma with flu-like symptoms progressing to coma indicates which poisoning?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the back constitute?
• RSI stands for what in airway management?
• Opioids cause presynaptic ____ channels to close and postsynaptic ____ channels to open.
• During DKA treatment, how often should labs be monitored and neuro checks performed?
• If alkalosis occurs with lower temperature and CO2, what shift on the O2 affinity curve occurs?
• Which sign is positive in epididymitis, indicating relief of pain with scrotal elevation?
• In an emergency department, platelets should be considered for treatment under which criteria?
• In urgent transfusion management, which test checks compatibility between the patient and donor blood?
• In outpatient burn care, when should blisters be debrided?
• Which describes quantitative platelet defects?
• Which treatment is included in the management of acute chest syndrome?
• For an infected dorsal hand laceration being treated on an outpatient basis, which antibiotic regimen is appropriate?
• In the initial assessment of a near-drowning patient, which of the following steps is recommended?
• To anesthetize the yellow area at the chin, which nerve should be targeted?
• What is the typical healing time for a back sprain/strain?
• Which burn depth is described as destruction of epidermis and dermis with exposed dermis, very painful?
• Which statement accurately describes the two broad categories of platelet defects?
• What bicarbonate level is specified as a treatment goal in DKA?
• What are the three main sections of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• What is the recommended approach to remove a wood splinter?
• What is a common initial treatment for hypercalcemia?
• Back pain with major motor weakness should raise concern for which cause?
• Which is a typical feature of adrenal crisis?
• What is the primary treatment for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which of the following is a sign of anemia?
• Lip wounds require antibiotics under which circumstance?
• This opioid can be given via IV, IM, PO, SQ and has a 1-3 min onset that lasts for 4-6 hours; it is metabolized in the liver and excreted renally.
• Which blood product has the highest oxygen-carrying capacity per unit and is used to increase hemoglobin?
• Which opioid is primarily excreted renally?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• What term describes a direct venom effect presenting with GI disturbances and bronchospasm?
• In neurogenic shock, the severity of symptoms is related to the level of spinal injury, with higher injuries producing more severe effects. Which option best reflects this statement?
• What are the initial management priorities for a burn patient?
• For anesthesia of a facial region during laceration repair, which technique is described as appropriate?
• _________ is the most common diving affliction and is caused by the direct mechanical effects of pressure.
• Which bacterium is commonly associated with cat bite infections?
• What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• What is a first-line outpatient antibiotic option for pyelonephritis?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
• Pyelonephritis is an infection of which anatomical structures?
• Which combination of symptoms is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which test is used to document a lower-extremity injury?
• Which statement best describes decompensation in shock?
• Which color code indicates a patient who is dead or likely to die?
• Which local anesthetic has an onset around 5 minutes and a duration of about 6 hours?
• Noninvasive ventilation is an alternative to intubation in which scenario?
• Which condition would warrant admission for a patient with a urinary stone?
• Field blocks require lower concentrations of local anesthetic than nerve blocks.
• Which of the following statements about blood products is true?
• Why should aggressive rubbing be avoided in hypothermia treatment?
• Match the hyponatremia level to its recommended treatment.
• What is the angle range associated with a positive straight leg raise for disc herniation?
• Hyponatremia is associated with which diagnosis?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve would result in what change to P50?
• Which test should be documented when evaluating lower-extremity injuries?
• Clinical features of myxedema coma include which of the following?
• Which imaging study is used to diagnose SVC syndrome?
• What is the recommended treatment for alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• What is the treatment for scabies?
• Which non-opioid drug has onset 30 seconds to 2 minutes and is a muscle relaxant that can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• Which description best fits a back strain or sprain?
• Which symptom cluster is typical of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease?
• Uncomplicated UTI meaning
• Which burn is described as waxy, leathery and lifeless, with death of all skin layers?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydromorphone?
• Where should you begin suturing for lesions of the nose?
• Initial treatment for human bites causing lacerations?
• Which of the following are common clinical features of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• In management of alcoholic ketoacidosis, which IV fluid regimen is preferred?
• The metabolic acidosis state due to inadequate nutritional intake in chronic alcohol use is called what?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 120 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• Uncomplicated UTI features
• A UTI can present as either acute _______ or acute ________
• Elevated lactate is most commonly associated with which scenario?
• What is a recommended treatment approach for insect bites and stings that provoke a reaction?
• Which routes are appropriate for morphine administration?
• What does the AVPU scale stand for in neurological assessment?
• Which diagnostic test should be used to evaluate urethral injury in penile fracture?
• Which statement correctly describes correcting serum sodium in DKA?
• In alcoholic ketoacidosis, which agent should be given first during treatment?
• Which of the following items constitute the 'big 6' must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• Which laboratory test is part of evaluating suspected pyelonephritis?
• Which statement describes airway management in suspected inhalation injury?
• Which color code is used to indicate the highest priority for life-saving interventions?
• Which knot is described for tendon repair in the material?
• Which measure describes the percentage of oxygen remaining in the blood returning to the lungs, typically sampled from the pulmonary artery via a pulmonary artery catheter?
• In a basic triage scheme, which color tag corresponds to third priority and allows patients to wait several hours for treatment?
• Which antibiotics are listed for dog bite infections?
• Which glucocorticoid is given intravenously in adrenal crisis?
• In suspected kidney stones, which imaging study is ordered?
• For chemical burns caused by sodium, potassium, calcium, or lithium, which first-aid measure is preferred?
• Which of the following is an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• Which scenario requires admission for pyelonephritis?
• What is the minimal urine output that a burn patient should have?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis red and moist and very painful?
• What is the recommended treatment for dog bites?
• What is the purpose of placing a Foley catheter in burn management?
• In triage, which color denotes the first priority?
• Which nerve is responsible for abduction and adduction of the fingers?
• Which nonpharmacologic measure is part of the initial management for epididymo-orchitis?
• Bone metastases most commonly respond to which therapy?
• Which finding is not typical of cauda equina syndrome?
• This opioid is synthetic, has immediate onset and lasts 30 minutes; can be given as a lollipop and does not release histamine.
• In this thrombotic microangiopathy, what two hematologic abnormalities are expected?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• During resuscitation with a pulse, how often should breaths be delivered?
• In cardiogenic shock with pulmonary congestion, when should diuretics be used?
• Which of the following is a recommended frostbite treatment?
• Which is a complication of rhabdomyolysis?
• How would you describe the sensitivity of the straight leg raise test for detecting disc herniation?
• Which of the following is part of the treatment for intrinsic renal failure?
• A positive straight leg raise test most commonly suggests herniation at which disc levels?
• What is the term for pretransfusion testing that includes blood type, Rh, and an antibody screen?
• Which condition is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• What is a key management step for thyroid storm?
• Which of the following is a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• Which is a first-line non-pharmacologic treatment for stable supraventricular tachycardia?
• What is the range of the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• If penile fracture is suspected, which specialist should be consulted for definitive management?
• What is the first-line treatment for adults with anaphylactic shock?
• In the management of high-pressure puncture wounds, which statement is true?
• What imaging is emergently needed when cauda equina syndrome is suspected?
• What is the IV dose for morphine sulfate?
• What is the last step in wound evaluation, if needed?
• In the workup for suspected hypothermia, which item is included?
• Which finding would support a positive straight leg raise test in a patient with back pain?
• Which medication is a cornerstone in treating myxedema coma?
• Which disease is described by the triad of hemolytic anemia, acute kidney failure, and thrombocytopenia, often after bloody diarrhea due to E. coli?
• What type of dressing is recommended for outpatient management of less severe burns?
• A class III hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which statement best describes the management of tendon lacerations?
• Which of the following is a potential complication of rhabdomyolysis besides renal failure?
• When evaluating upper-extremity wounds, which of the following statements is true regarding patient history and physical examination?
• In resuscitation, the DEs stand for which two components?
• This local anesthetic is commonly used and has an onset of 2-5 minutes and lasts for 2-3 hours.
• Decompensated shock occurs when
• Which of the following is not typically part of the initial management of neurogenic shock?
• Which finding is a red flag for back pain indicating possible nerve root involvement?
• What is the first step in wound evaluation?
• What term describes circulatory insufficiency causing tissue hypoperfusion, metabolic acidosis, and decreased venous oxygen content?
• Infections of dorsal hand lacerations are most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which of the following are common opioid side effects?
• In neurogenic shock, which combination of findings is most characteristic?
• Back pain with a positive straight-leg raise test most often indicates which diagnosis?
• Initial management of chemical burns includes which of the following?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for high-risk puncture wounds?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• Which symptoms may occur during a delayed reaction to an insect bite or sting?
• Which of the following is an indication to remove a foreign body from a wound?
• Which motor response corresponds to a score of 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• What imaging should be ordered for suspected testicular torsion?
• In a patient with renal failure who is mild, has a clear cause, no complications, and access to follow-up care, what is the most appropriate disposition?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect vascular smooth muscle?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors is commonly used with local anesthetic to prolong the block and decrease bleeding?
• Which statement is true about frostbite?
• What is the recommended approach to cooling burns?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease presents with which combination?
• What is the recommended initial treatment for adrenal crisis?
• Which types of anemia would have a low MCV?
• SVR stands for which hemodynamic term?
• If no pulse is detected within how many seconds should CPR be initiated in an emergency?
• After controlling bleeding, what is the next immediate step in wound evaluation?
• Which laboratory tests are commonly ordered in suspected kidney stones?
• In DKA, how is potassium status typically described?
• Which color code indicates that patients are sick but care can be delayed 45-60 minutes?
• Which rare blood disorder is characterized by widespread microvascular thrombosis causing thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia?
• Which areas are sites where life-threatening hemorrhage can occur?
• Delayed reactions to insect bites may include which combination of symptoms?
• EMTALA applies to which patients presenting to the ED?
• Injury with high voltage electrical exposure is commonly associated with which condition requiring monitoring for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which statement reflects the implication of a negative straight leg raise test in suspected disc herniation?
• Which skin finding is typical in neurogenic shock?
• 1% lidocaine contains which of the following mg per mL?
• What is the term for acute life-threatening adrenal insufficiency?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Which of the following is a sign/symptom of thyroid storm?
• In cauda equina syndrome, which symptom tends to present early?
• What is the Parkland burn formula and how is it administered?
• Initial management for decompression sickness.
• Chillblains are characterized by edema, erythema and cyanosis appearing up to how many hours after exposure?
• Which technique provides the most reliable immediate confirmation of endotracheal tube placement?
• Which opioid is primarily given IV and PO and has an onset of 5 minutes and peaks in 5-15 minutes; duration greater than 5 hours?
• Gas bubbles forming in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusion and delayed inflammatory response describe which diving-related condition?
• Initial management steps for myxedema coma include which of the following?
• Which step is NOT part of outpatient management for less severe burns?
• When evaluating wounds of the upper extremity, which steps are appropriate to include in the assessment?
• Which statement best describes the straight leg raise test in the context of disc herniation?
• What should you always inspect nose wounds for?
• Which condition is associated with decreased vasomotor tone and peripheral pooling in poorly acclimatized individuals during heat exposure?
• In heat emergencies, ICU admission is most likely required for which scenario?
• Which shift on the oxygen affinity curve increases the affinity for O2?
• What is the initial treatment for hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock?
• Cryoprecipitate is derived from which product?
• Which of the following is included in the treatment plan for trench foot and chillblains?
• Which of the following is an oral opioid analgesic?
• Which description corresponds to 2nd-degree frostbite?
• The topical anesthetic Emla consists of which two drugs?
• Weak plantar flexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on toes and a diminished ankle jerk indicates compression of which nerve root?
• What size suture can uncomplicated eyelid lacerations be closed with?
• Which agent is listed as a vasopressor or inotrope for cardiogenic shock?
• Discharge criteria for patients with urinary stones mainly include which condition?
• Which statement lists the types of anemia that would have a normal MCV according to the material?
• If a wound is high risk for infection, when should antibiotics be started?
• What is the treatment for balanoposthitis?
• What is the primary purpose of a neuromuscular blocking agent during RSI?
• Which laboratory value supports the presence of metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which statement about acetaminophen is true?
• Which finding would indicate cauda equina syndrome in a patient with back pain?
• If a straight leg raise test is negative, what is the most appropriate clinical interpretation?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag of back pain?
• Which sign indicates airway involvement in burn patients?
• Urethritis is commonly associated with which clinical feature?
• What is recommended in the treatment of hypothermia?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• Which is a clinical feature of renal failure?
• In the initial near-drowning evaluation, which test is routinely performed?
• What is the treatment for bed bug bites?
• Injection of an anesthetic into and around a nerve or group of nerves is called a?
• What is the recommended management for viral orchitis?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the digits are adducted and abducted?
• Which method is used to confirm endotracheal tube placement immediately after intubation?
• What is included in the management of cat bites?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the first dorsal web space?
• During the straight leg raise test, the patient is positioned how?
• What is the most common causative agent of infection with puncture wounds?
• Gastritis, pancreatitis, or hepatitis may accompany which metabolic state following heavy alcohol use?
• Which laboratory marker is used to confirm carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which complication should be checked for in lightning injuries during the work-up?
• Which puncture wounds are eligible for low-pressure irrigation?
• Which statement accurately describes electrical injuries from alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)?
• In insect bite or sting reactions, is the severity greater with quicker or more delayed onset?
• Which bite is associated with a target lesion after a pinprick sensation with induration, erythema, and blistering?
• Which statement best describes anemia treatment when transfusion is indicated?
• What is an appropriate initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome presenting with neurologic deficit?
• Which step in wound management involves removal of foreign bodies or hair?
• Which intervention may be required in high-voltage electrical injuries due to potential deep tissue damage and rhabdomyolysis?
• Which action is related to temperature control as an exposure/environmental measure during resuscitation?
• Which statement about decompression sickness is true?
• During laryngoscopy, the BURP maneuver applies pressure in which direction set to improve the view?
• In triage, which color denotes the second priority with care delayed 45-60 minutes?
• A class IV hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydrocodone?
• Which presentation is classic for urinary stones?
• Opioids are excreted primarily by which route?
• Under what condition can a patient with hypoglycemia be discharged from the ED?
• Which item is included in a standard procedure note?
• A class II hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which lab finding would strongly lead you to the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis?
• What is the term for stones located specifically in the ureter?
• What is the medical term for stones in the urinary tract?
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag for cancer in a patient with back pain?
• During the workup for hypothermia, which imaging is used to assess for infection or aspiration?
• Which management step is central to treating trench foot and chillblains?
• Which combination defines heat stroke?
• What is the initial step in rapid sequence intubation?
• Which maneuvers are included in opening the airway for an unconscious patient with suspected airway obstruction?
• In the initial management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is the first therapeutic priority?
• Is isolated orchitis uncommon in adults and usually associated with epididymitis?
• Where should you begin suturing for complicated lesions of the lips?
• For suspected SVC syndrome with neurologic deficit, which treatment is indicated?
• Which clinical scenario would most support ordering a straight leg raising test to evaluate possible disc herniation?
• What is the treatment for pre-renal renal failure?
• Which diagnostic test should be obtained for every patient with DKA or HHS to assess for electrolyte disturbances and potential underlying causes such as myocardial infarction?
• Which tool is used to quantify neurological status during resuscitation?
• Inability to retract the foreskin is called?
• If back pain with neurological deficit, what imaging would be best?
• What verbal response corresponds to a score of 5 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, how should sodium be corrected for hyperglycemia?
• Which drug is a non-opioid benzodiazepine used as a muscle relaxant and can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• A class I hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which of the following is a sympatholytic effect of opioids?
• What is the recommended epinephrine dose for adults with anaphylaxis?
• Which laboratory test is typically used to evaluate anemia?
• Cardiogenic shock is shock caused by
• Infection of the kidney and renal pelvis is called
• Which of the following is a primary approach to treating disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Indicators of poor prognosis following near drowning.
• How is the patient positioned to perform the straight leg raise test?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each arm contribute?
• What is the cut-off time mentioned for attempting detorsion to salvage the testicle?
• Which insect can cause a sterile pustule that evolves over 6-24 hours and may cause necrosis and scarring?
• Which condition causes pain that radiates from the buttock down the leg and can extend to the feet and toes?
• Which technique is preferred for anesthetizing a facial laceration?
• In the management of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock, which option best describes an essential step?
• What is the immediate intervention for an obstructed airway?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis?
• The nerve that provides sensation to the chin and lower lip and is targeted for mental area anesthesia is which?
• Which chest X-ray findings are commonly associated with cardiogenic shock?
• What is the preferred method for protecting the airway in emergency airway management?
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain and can be present in acute distress?
• Which of the following is an indication for packed red blood cell transfusion?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the common predictors for difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation?
• Which of the following is a cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency?
• Which type of shock results from acute blood loss?
• What suture size is appropriate for lower-extremity wounds?
• What is the normal range for the anion gap?
• Hyponatremia with sodium greater than 125 mEq/L is typically treated with which measure?
• In rhabdomyolysis due to exertional causes, which patient is typically considered safe for discharge?
• Is cardiac monitoring indicated in a healthy person who has been tasered?
• Which of the following is listed as an admission criterion for urinary stone management?
• What is the most common cause of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?
• What is the recommended management for high-pressure puncture wounds?
• Which EKG finding is classically associated with hypothermia?
• Which of the following is NOT among the factors that predict difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation (BVM)?
• Toxic doses of ibuprofen start at which mg/kg/day?
• Who was the first developer of academic emergency medicine?
• What is the composition of the majority of urinary stones?
• Which statement best describes the diagnostic criteria for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which findings are clinical indicators of inhalation injury?
• What venous pH level is considered a treatment target in DKA?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia with altered mental status?
• What is the initial compensatory method during shock?
• Which organism is commonly involved in hand wound infections?
• What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain?
• Percocet contains which opioid?
• Which of the following is NOT typically used in the initial management of electrical injuries?
• Cryoprecipitate contains which combination of factors?
• Which analgesic is administered as a gas with a rapid onset, peaks in 1-2 minutes, must be delivered with oxygen, and is used for pediatric populations outside the USA?
• Which burn depth includes charring with involvement of epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which malignancies?
• Which symptom is characteristic of frostbite?
• An eyelid wound with ptosis should be referred.
• In adults, the anterior chest represents what percent of body surface area when estimating burns?
• Burn victims requiring transfer to a specialty burn unit are typically those with which condition?
• During the straight leg raise test, a positive result is best indicated by pain occurring at what range of hip flexion?
• During Parkland fluid resuscitation, which parameter is used to gauge adequacy of resuscitation?
• Disposition largely based on for near-drowning?
• Which topical agent is commonly used for minor burns but should be avoided on the face due to staining?
• What is the ultimate goal of wound management?
• In sickle cell disease, an elevated reticulocyte count with splenomegaly most likely indicates which complication?
• Which blood product contains all coagulation factors and fibrinogen?
• Soft tissue injury from prolonged exposure to nonfreezing cold and moisture with pale, mottled, pulseless and numb feet that does not rapidly improve with rewarming and may be painful for 2-3 days after rewarming is known as what?
• In suspected hypothermia, which temperature measurement is used to assess core temperature?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient abducts the thumb?
• This results from breathing compressed air for excessive depth and time while diving and causes excessive bubble formation in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusive and delayed inflammatory response.
• Mean arterial pressure is calculated as which of the following relationships?
• What insulin infusion rate is used in DKA management?
• The medical term for survival after submersion with asphyxia is near drowning.
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• Which of the following is NOT a precipitating factor for thyroid storm?
• 1% lidocaine solution contains how many milligrams per milliliter?
• What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• When can an alcoholic ketoacidosis patient be discharged?
• Near-drowning disposition when GCS is greater than 13 and oxygen saturation over 95%?
• What is the treatment of choice for a pathologic fracture?
• Frostbite is classified by which factors?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which cancers?
• Which test is essential to evaluate suspected diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Pharmacologic therapies for hypothermia are ineffective below which core temperatures?
• As part of outpatient management for less severe burns, wounds should be kept covered from which exposure?
• Which organisms commonly infect human bite wounds?
• What finding constitutes a positive straight leg raise test?
• If outpatient treatment for pyelonephritis fails, which antibiotic combination is recommended?
• Which respiratory pattern is classically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• A commonly used local anesthetic has an onset of about 5 minutes and lasts around 6 hours. Which agent is this?
• Which statement best describes the indications for dialysis in renal failure?
• Balanoposthitis is inflammation of which structures?
• Which description corresponds to 1st-degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• Which of the following is NOT accurate about the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• The BURP maneuver improves the laryngoscopic view of the glottic opening by applying pressure in which direction set?
• Which lab value is markedly elevated in rhabdomyolysis?
• If a patient has weakness of quadriceps extension and diminished knee reflex, which nerve root is compressed?
• Which medication is used IV for SVT if non-pharmacologic maneuvers fail?
• Which term denotes the stage of shock in which compensatory mechanisms maintain perfusion and blood pressure?
• Which statement is true regarding chemical burns from alkali or reactive metals (sodium, potassium, calcium, lithium)?
• Escharotomy is performed to relieve constriction from burned tissue in which area to aid breathing?
• In trench foot, feet may be painful after rewarming for how long?
• Severe hypothyroidism with decreased mental status and hypothermia precipitated by infection, cold exposure, or trauma describes which condition?
• Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte disturbance seen in which condition?
• Which item is NOT part of the big 6 must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• Which ancillary studies should be ordered for suspected cardiogenic shock?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect cardiac function?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and PCO2?
• Which description corresponds to 4th-degree frostbite?
• How can the diagnosis of hypoglycemia be made?
• Which class corresponds to the greatest blood loss?
• What is the fifth component of the ABCDEs in resuscitation?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect bronchial smooth muscle?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the perineum contribute?
• Severe hyperglycemia without significant ketoacidosis is best described as which condition?
• If back pain with suspected tumor, fracture or infection, what imaging would you order?
• Which antibiotic regimen is appropriate for epididymo-orchitis in sexually active men?
• Which is NOT listed as a risk factor for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which statement best describes the management approach for suspected cauda equina syndrome?
• Which airway cannot be used in a conscious patient due to gag reflex?
• Which of the following is part of initial management for urinary stones?
• Which local anesthetic is used on the eyes and provides immediate results?
• In a patient with sulfonylurea–induced hypoglycemia, what is the recommended initial management?
• Which of the following are clinical features of alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• In Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), which osmolality level is typically observed?
• What is the distinctive feathering marking seen on lightning strike victims?
• Which presentation best suggests cauda equina syndrome?
• Gradual onset pain and swelling of one or both testes with fever is most consistent with which condition?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• In a patient with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which differential diagnoses should be considered?
• Which frostbite degree is associated with hemorrhagic bullae and skin necrosis?
• Which opioid has a toxic metabolite that may cause seizures?
• Which of the following is included in the initial management steps for hemorrhagic shock?
• What is a potential limitation of the straight leg raise test when considering disc herniation?
• What is the most common bacteria to cause pyelonephritis?
• The condition characterized by skeletal muscle injury with necrosis and release of intracellular contents is called?
• Never clip or shave which area during wound preparation?
• Which is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• What is the initial management for back sprain/strain?
• Inability to reduce the proximal edematous foreskin distally over the glans is called?
• What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency?
• What is the recommended treatment approach for Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors can be administered with local anesthetic to prolong the block and reduce bleeding?
• Which sign is negative in testicular torsion and positive in epididymo-orchitis?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease is a pulmonary complication that is most often associated with which trigger?
• Which of the following statements about hypothermia management is true?
• Which patient requires admission after a hypoglycemic episode?
• Prickly heat is caused by blockage of sweat pores. Which option lists the correct condition in the ordering used here?
• EMTALA is colloquially described as which law?
• In a pregnant patient with suspected kidney stones, which imaging modality is preferred?
• This topical local anesthetic can be applied directly to intact skin.
• Which of the following is a common early sign of hypothermia?
• Which statement about diabetic ketoacidosis is true?
• Which induction agent is preferred for a patient who is hypotensive or has bronchospasm?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature of hypoglycemia?
• In management of a septal hematoma, which approach is recommended?
• Which laboratory studies are typically obtained in evaluating cardiogenic shock?
• Scalp sutures in place for ___ days.
• Which of the following is included in the management of neurogenic shock?
• Which of the following is a red flag for back pain that may indicate infection or serious pathology?
• Painful inflammatory lesions typically affecting the ears, hands, and feet from chronic exposure to intermittent damp conditions, presenting with edema, erythema and cyanosis up to 12 hours after exposure, are called what?
• Which type of laceration typically requires operative repair?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each leg (including both front and back) represent?
• Platelet transfusion is indicated in disseminated intravascular coagulation when platelets are within which range if there is active bleeding?
• Death from laryngospasm and hypoxemia without aspiration.
• To anesthetize the red area near the cheek, which nerve should be targeted?
• Weak dorsiflexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on the heels indicates compression of which nerve root?
• A decreased reticulocyte count in sickle cell disease most strongly suggests which complication?
• Which burn depth involves charring present, with epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone involved?
• Leftward shift on the oxygen affinity curve would cause what change in oxygen unloading to tissues?
• IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) are used for which conditions?
• Which plasma-derived product is used to correct coagulation defects in bleeding patients with multiple deficiencies?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient dorsiflexes the wrist?
• Hepatotoxicity starts at which mg/kg/day with acetaminophen?
• Before performing a digital block, what physical exam should you perform?
• Which items are included in the general treatment plan for cardiogenic shock?
• In the eye-opening component of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to the highest score?
• A medical condition that results from pressure changes that occur when a person descends in water or ascends in altitude.
• After evaluation for kidney stones, which statement describes discharge planning?
• Which symptom can indicate hypoglycemia?
• Which blood product is primarily used to replace fibrinogen in bleeding disorders?
• Why is bupivacaine added to lidocaine for local anesthesia?
• In burn management, why is maintaining body warmth important?
• What imaging study should be used to look for foreign bodies or bone destruction in an infected puncture wound?
• Which sequence correctly lists the general steps of rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
• Where is tenderness typically located in epididymitis?
• Which of the following are reperfusion strategies in cardiogenic shock?
• Ejection fraction is SV/EDV. What does EDV stand for?
• NSAIDs like aspirin, naproxen, and ibuprofen are safe for children after what age?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 125 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• In which scenario should a urine culture be obtained for suspected UTI?
• Which symptom combination is most characteristic of pyelonephritis?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for priapism?
• What term describes self-limited edema that can occur with initial warmth exposure?
• During resuscitation, which area is evaluated first?
• What is the initial management for testicular torsion?
• Cryoprecipitate is used to replace which factors?
• To anesthetize the blue area near the eye, which nerve should be targeted?
• A left shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and CO2?
• Which items are important to document when examining a wound?
• Which statement best describes blood pressure in shock?
• Face sutures in place for _ days.
• In patients with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which diagnosis is particularly important to consider?
• Which drug is commonly used as a pre-treatment during RSI to blunt sympathetic response and reduce risk during intubation?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia if no IV access is available?
• Back pain with unexpected anal sphincter laxity suggests which serious condition?
• Which statement is true about noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation modalities?
• Which are clinical features of platelet defects?
• In a triage system, which level indicates that patients are dead or have a very poor chance of survival?
• Which arrhythmia is commonly associated with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
• The 1984 death of an 18-year-old female in a New York hospital leading to changes in medical training is commonly known as which case?
• Thyroid storm is a life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis most commonly seen in patients with which condition?
• In suspected penile fracture, which diagnostic study should be ordered to evaluate urethral injury?
• Which insect bite is classically associated with immediate pain and paresthesia and a positive tap test?
• Which statement about potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis is accurate?
• What does ABCs stand for in emergency management?
• Which of the following conditions can cause cauda equina syndrome?
• Which statement about dog bite infections is accurate?
• What is the treatment for spider bites?
• Which statement is not a typical factor used to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis?
• A common laboratory finding in pyelonephritis is which of the following?
• Which laboratory value is important to measure for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which statement best describes the typical progression of symptoms after smoke exposure leading to carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which of the following is an example of a cause of cardiogenic shock?
• Which organ is primarily affected in HUS?
• Which testing scenario includes a general antibody screen but does not attempt crossmatching for donor cells in urgent transfusion?
• This opioid is discouraged due to large histamine release, toxic metabolite that may cause seizures, and can be fatal if given with an MAOI.